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The Squeeze Theorem

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Reference: Stewart §2.3

Trapping a Limit

Some functions oscillate so wildly near a point that direct methods fail. Consider $\sin(1/x)$ as $x \to 0$: it swings between $-1$ and $1$ infinitely often. How could such a function have a limit?

The answer: trap it between two simpler functions. If you can show that a complicated function is always between two simple ones, and both simple functions approach the same limit, then the complicated function has no choice; it’s squeezed into that same limit.

Prerequisite Map

This skillThe Squeeze Theorem

Quick Reference

Property Value
Concept Limits
Chapter 1.6
Difficulty Intermediate
Time ~20 minutes

The Squeeze Theorem (Sandwich Theorem)

Statement

If $f(x) \le g(x) \le h(x)$ for all $x$ near $a$ (except possibly at $a$ itself), and

$$\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = L \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to a} h(x) = L$$

then

$$\boxed{\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = L}$$

Visualization

    │
h(x)│     ╭──╮
    │   ╱     ╲
  L ├──●────────●───  ← Both bounds approach L
    │   ╲     ╱
f(x)│     ╰──╯
    │
    └───────┬───────
            a

g(x) is "squeezed" between f(x) and h(x)

Why It Works

The function $g(x)$ is trapped in a narrowing corridor. As $x \to a$, the corridor height $h(x) - f(x) \to 0$. With nowhere else to go, $g(x)$ must approach $L$.

The Standard Setup

Most Squeeze Theorem problems follow this pattern:

  1. Start with a bounded oscillation: $-1 \le \sin(\text{something}) \le 1$ or $-1 \le \cos(\text{something}) \le 1$

  2. Multiply by a function going to zero: If $\vert g(x)\vert \le M$ and $f(x) \to 0$, then $f(x) \cdot g(x) \to 0$

  3. The squeeze: $-\vert f(x)\vert \le f(x) \cdot g(x) \le \vert f(x)\vert $

The Classic Example

Evaluate $\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$.

The challenge: $\sin(1/x)$ oscillates infinitely as $x \to 0$, so no limit exists for this factor alone.

The solution: The oscillations are bounded, and $x^2 \to 0$ crushes them.

Setup the squeeze:

Since $-1 \le \sin(1/x) \le 1$ for all $x \neq 0$:

$$-x^2 \le x^2 \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \le x^2$$

Apply the theorem:

Both $\lim_{x \to 0}(-x^2) = 0$ and $\lim_{x \to 0}(x^2) = 0$.

Therefore: $\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = 0$

When to Use the Squeeze Theorem

Situation Why Squeeze Works
Product: (goes to 0) × (bounded) Bounded oscillations get crushed
Functions with $\sin(1/x)$ or $\cos(1/x)$ These oscillate but stay in $[-1, 1]$
Proving limits equal zero Easy to build symmetric bounds
Functions trapped by known limits When direct computation fails

Practice Problems

Level 1 Basic Sine Squeeze

Evaluate $\lim_{x \to 0} x \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$.

Thought Process

We have (function going to 0) times (bounded oscillating function).

Since $-1 \le \sin(1/x) \le 1$, multiply through by $\vert x\vert $ to get bounds.

Be careful: we need $-\vert x\vert \le x\sin(1/x) \le \vert x\vert $, not $-x \le \cdots \le x$ (which reverses when $x < 0$).

Show Answer

Since $-1 \le \sin(1/x) \le 1$:

$$-\vert x\vert \le x\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \le \vert x\vert $$

Both $\lim_{x \to 0}(-\vert x\vert ) = 0$ and $\lim_{x \to 0}\vert x\vert = 0$.

By the Squeeze Theorem: $$\lim_{x \to 0} x\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = 0$$

Level 2 Cosine Squeeze

Evaluate $\lim_{x \to 0} x^4 \cos\left(\frac{3}{x}\right)$.

Thought Process

Same structure: $\cos(3/x)$ is bounded by $-1$ and $1$, while $x^4 \to 0$.

Since $x^4 \ge 0$ for all $x$, we can write: $-x^4 \le x^4\cos(3/x) \le x^4$.

Show Answer

Since $-1 \le \cos(3/x) \le 1$ and $x^4 \ge 0$:

$$-x^4 \le x^4\cos\left(\frac{3}{x}\right) \le x^4$$

Both bounds approach 0: $$\lim_{x \to 0}(-x^4) = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to 0}(x^4) = 0$$

By the Squeeze Theorem: $$\lim_{x \to 0} x^4\cos\left(\frac{3}{x}\right) = 0$$

Level 3 Non-Zero Squeeze

Given that $3x - 1 \le f(x) \le x^2 + 3$ for all $x$ near 2, find $\lim_{x \to 2} f(x)$.

Thought Process

This is a direct application where the bounds are already given.

Compute the limit of each bounding function at $x = 2$.

If they’re equal, that’s the limit of $f(x)$.

Show Answer

Compute limits of the bounding functions:

$$\lim_{x \to 2}(3x - 1) = 6 - 1 = 5$$

$$\lim_{x \to 2}(x^2 + 3) = 4 + 3 = 7$$

Wait! These limits are different (5 ≠ 7).

The Squeeze Theorem requires equal limits. Since the bounds don’t converge to the same value, we cannot conclude anything about $\lim_{x \to 2} f(x)$ from this information alone.

The answer is: Cannot determine from given information.

Level 4 Constructing Your Own Bounds

Evaluate $\lim_{x \to 0^+} \sqrt{x} \sin\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)$.

Thought Process

The $\sin(1/x^2)$ oscillates wildly, but it’s bounded: $-1 \le \sin(1/x^2) \le 1$.

We’re approaching from the right, so $x > 0$ and $\sqrt{x} > 0$.

Multiply the inequality by $\sqrt{x}$: $$-\sqrt{x} \le \sqrt{x}\sin(1/x^2) \le \sqrt{x}$$

Both bounds go to 0 as $x \to 0^+$.

Show Answer

Since $-1 \le \sin(1/x^2) \le 1$ and $\sqrt{x} > 0$ for $x > 0$:

$$-\sqrt{x} \le \sqrt{x}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) \le \sqrt{x}$$

Both bounds approach 0: $$\lim_{x \to 0^+}(-\sqrt{x}) = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to 0^+}\sqrt{x} = 0$$

By the Squeeze Theorem: $$\lim_{x \to 0^+} \sqrt{x}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) = 0$$

Level 5 Proving a Famous Limit

Use the Squeeze Theorem to prove that $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin x}{x} = 1$.

Hint: For $0 < x < \pi/2$, the following inequalities hold (from geometry of the unit circle): $$\cos x < \frac{\sin x}{x} < 1$$

Thought Process

We’re given the inequality for $x > 0$. We need to:

  1. Find the limits of both bounds as $x \to 0^+$
  2. Handle the case $x \to 0^-$ separately (by symmetry)
  3. Conclude about the two-sided limit

For the left limit: note that $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ is an even function (both $\sin x$ and $x$ are odd, so their ratio is even).

Show Answer

Right-hand limit ($x \to 0^+$):

Given: $\cos x < \frac{\sin x}{x} < 1$ for $0 < x < \pi/2$.

Take limits:

  • $\lim_{x \to 0^+} \cos x = \cos 0 = 1$
  • $\lim_{x \to 0^+} 1 = 1$

By the Squeeze Theorem: $$\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{\sin x}{x} = 1$$

Left-hand limit ($x \to 0^-$):

Let $x < 0$ and substitute $t = -x > 0$: $$\frac{\sin x}{x} = \frac{\sin(-t)}{-t} = \frac{-\sin t}{-t} = \frac{\sin t}{t}$$

So $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ is an even function. As $x \to 0^-$, we have $t \to 0^+$, and: $$\lim_{x \to 0^-}\frac{\sin x}{x} = \lim_{t \to 0^+}\frac{\sin t}{t} = 1$$

Two-sided limit:

Since both one-sided limits equal 1: $$\boxed{\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin x}{x} = 1}$$

Conceptual Check (CCI-Style)

Conceptual Why Squeeze Succeeds

The limit $\lim_{x \to 0}\sin(1/x)$ does not exist because the function oscillates infinitely.

But $\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin(1/x) = 0$ exists.

How can multiplying by $x^2$ “create” a limit that wasn’t there before?

Thought Process

Think about what’s happening to the amplitude of the oscillations.

$\sin(1/x)$ always oscillates between -1 and 1, with the same amplitude forever.

But $x^2 \sin(1/x)$ oscillates between $-x^2$ and $x^2$. What happens to this range as $x \to 0$?

Show Answer

The amplitude is being crushed to zero.

While $\sin(1/x)$ oscillates with constant amplitude 1, the function $x^2\sin(1/x)$ oscillates with amplitude $x^2$.

As $x \to 0$:

  • The oscillation frequency goes to infinity (faster and faster)
  • But the amplitude goes to zero (smaller and smaller swings)

The shrinking amplitude wins: the oscillations become so tiny that they’re forced to approach 0.

Key insight: A limit can fail to exist because of wild oscillations, but if those oscillations are “damped” by a factor going to zero, the product can have a limit.

Common Misconceptions

Common misconception

the Squeeze Theorem requires the bounding functions to equal the target limit at the point. The theorem requires only that $g(x) \le f(x) \le h(x)$ near $a$ and that $\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = \lim_{x \to a} h(x) = L$. Neither $g$ nor $h$ need to equal $L$ at $x = a$, and $f$ need not be defined at $a$ at all. For $\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin(1/x)$, neither the lower bound $-x^2$ nor the upper bound $x^2$ equals zero at $x = 0$ in any special way; they both approach zero, which is sufficient.

Common misconception

any two bounds that trap the function are enough. The two bounding functions must share the same limit at $a$. Choosing $g(x) = -1$ and $h(x) = 1$ to bound $\sin(x)/x$ near $x = 0$ does trap the function, but $\lim g = -1 \neq 1 = \lim h$, so the theorem gives no conclusion. Tight bounds, ones that converge to the same value, are what make the squeeze work.

Mastery Checklist

Mental Model

The narrowing corridor:

Imagine walking through a hallway that gets narrower and narrower. No matter how erratically you move side to side, if the walls close in to the same point, you’ll end up exactly there.

The function $g(x)$ is the walker, $f(x)$ and $h(x)$ are the walls, and $L$ is where the walls meet.


Connections

Looking back:

Looking ahead:

Real-world connections:



Last updated: 2026-01-22