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Type 1: Infinite Limits

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Reference: Stewart §7.8

Type 1: Infinite Limits of Integration


Textbook Reference

Primary source OpenStax Calculus Volume 2, Section 3.7: “Improper Integrals”
Direct link https://openstax.org/books/calculus-volume-2/pages/3-7-improper-integrals
Textbook used in class Stewart, Calculus, Section 7.8: “Improper Integrals”

Opening Scenario

The definite integral $\int_a^b f(x)\,dx$ was defined for finite $a$ and $b$ with $f$ continuous on $[a,b]$. What if the upper limit is $\infty$? The function $1/x^2$ approaches zero as $x \to \infty$, and geometrically the area under the curve on $[1, \infty)$ should be finite (the rectangles shrink fast enough). But the definition does not allow $b = \infty$. The fix: define the integral over an infinite interval as a limit of ordinary integrals over $[a, t]$ as $t \to \infty$.


Quick Reference

Type 1 improper integrals (infinite limits):

$$\int_a^{\infty} f(x)\,dx = \lim_{t\to\infty} \int_a^t f(x)\,dx \quad \text{(if the limit exists)}.$$

$$\int_{-\infty}^b f(x)\,dx = \lim_{t\to -\infty} \int_t^b f(x)\,dx.$$

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx = \int_{-\infty}^c f(x)\,dx + \int_c^{\infty} f(x)\,dx \quad \text{(split at any finite } c\text{)}.$$

Convergence/divergence: An improper integral converges if the limit exists and is finite. It diverges if the limit is infinite or does not exist.

$p$-test (important special case): $$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^p}\,dx \text{ converges if } p > 1, \text{ diverges if } p \leq 1.$$


Key Concepts

1. The Definition

$\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}\,dx$ is not an ordinary integral -- the upper limit is not a number. Define it as:

$$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}\,dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\int_1^t\frac{1}{x^2}\,dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left[-\frac{1}{x}\right]_1^t = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left(-\frac{1}{t}+1\right) = 1.$$

The integral converges to 1. Geometrically, the infinite region under $y = 1/x^2$ has finite area 1.

2. The $p$-Test

For power functions on $[1, \infty)$:

$$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{dx}{x^p} = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left[\frac{x^{1-p}}{1-p}\right]_1^t \quad (p \neq 1).$$

Key borderline case: $\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}\,dx$ diverges, even though $1/x \to 0$ as $x \to \infty$.

3. Both Limits at Infinity

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx = \int_{-\infty}^0 f(x)\,dx + \int_0^{\infty} f(x)\,dx.$$

Both halves must converge separately. If either diverges, the whole integral diverges. Do not use the “cancellation” shortcut $\lim_{t\to\infty}\int_{-t}^t f(x)\,dx$ as the definition -- this is called the Cauchy principal value and differs from the standard improper integral when both halves diverge.

Common misconception

“$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx = 0$ when $f$ is odd.” For an odd function, $\int_{-t}^t f(x)\,dx = 0$ for all $t$. But if both $\int_{-\infty}^0 f$ and $\int_0^{\infty} f$ diverge individually, the integral $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f\,dx$ diverges. Example: $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x\,dx$ diverges (both $\int_0^{\infty} x\,dx$ and $\int_{-\infty}^0 x\,dx$ diverge).


Worked Example

Evaluate $\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x}\,dx$.

$\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x}\,dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\int_0^t e^{-x}\,dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left[-e^{-x}\right]_0^t = \lim_{t\to\infty}(-e^{-t}+1) = 0 + 1 = 1$.

Converges to 1. This is the simplest case of the Gamma function: $\Gamma(1) = \int_0^{\infty} e^{-x}\,dx = 1$.


Evaluate $\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}}$.

$\displaystyle\lim_{t\to\infty}\int_1^t x^{-1/2}\,dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left[2x^{1/2}\right]_1^t = \lim_{t\to\infty}(2\sqrt{t}-2) = \infty$.

Diverges. ($p = 1/2 < 1$ in the $p$-test.)


Common Errors Summary

Error Example Correction
Evaluating at $\infty$ directly Writing $\left[-\frac{1}{x}\right]_1^{\infty} = -\frac{1}{\infty}+\frac{1}{1}$ Use the limit: $\lim_{t\to\infty}\left[-\frac{1}{x}\right]_1^t = \lim_{t\to\infty}(-\frac{1}{t}+1) = 1$
Using cancellation for $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}$ $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}x\,dx = 0$ by symmetry Split at 0; each half diverges, so the integral diverges
Applying the $p$-test to $\int_0^1$ instead of $\int_1^{\infty}$ Claiming $\int_0^1\frac{dx}{x^2}$ converges because $p=2>1$ The $p$-test for $\int_1^{\infty}$ says $p>1$ converges. For $\int_0^1$, the rule reverses: $p<1$ converges, $p\geq 1$ diverges (Type 2 improper integral)

Leveled Practice

Level 1 -- Basic Convergence

Problem 1. Determine whether $\displaystyle\int_2^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^3}\,dx$ converges, and if so, find its value.

Show answer

$p = 3 > 1$: converges. $\displaystyle\lim_{t\to\infty}\left[-\frac{1}{2x^2}\right]_2^t = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left(-\frac{1}{2t^2}+\frac{1}{8}\right) = \frac{1}{8}$.


Level 2 -- Divergence

Problem 2. Show that $\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}\,dx$ diverges.

Show answer

$\displaystyle\lim_{t\to\infty}\int_1^t\frac{dx}{x} = \lim_{t\to\infty}\ln t = \infty$. Diverges.


Level 3 -- Both Limits

Problem 3. Evaluate $\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+x^2}\,dx$.

Show answer

Split at 0:

$\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^0\frac{dx}{1+x^2} = \lim_{t\to-\infty}\arctan(x)\Big|_t^0 = 0 - (-\pi/2) = \pi/2$.

$\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^2} = \lim_{t\to\infty}\arctan(x)\Big|_0^t = \pi/2 - 0 = \pi/2$.

Total: $\pi/2 + \pi/2 = \pi$.


Mastery Checklist


Mental Model

An improper integral with an infinite upper limit is like a hotel with infinitely many rooms. Some integrals accumulate finite total area as $t \to \infty$ (the room sizes shrink fast enough); others accumulate infinite total area (the rooms shrink too slowly). The limit is the formal way to ask: “Does the accumulation ever stabilize?”

The $p$-test gives the threshold: $p > 1$ means the function decays fast enough, $p \leq 1$ means it does not.


Connections

Looking back

Looking ahead


Back to Techniques of Integration | Next: Type 2 -- Discontinuous Integrands